Juvenile hereditary cataract in the Staffordshire: the HSF4 gene

Question

14-month-old Staffordshire Bull Terrier with bilateral cataracts that have progressed over recent months. Normal blood glucose and fructosamine, no history of trauma or milk-replacer feeding. The fundus is normal where it can be seen.

Which statement is correct?

chevron_right Show answer and explanation

A. It is a nutritional cataract and will regress on its own with a balanced diet

Nutritional cataract occurs in orphan puppies raised on deficient milk replacers (arginine) and usually improves with age; it does not fit this history.

B. It is an early senile cataract with no breeding implications

A bilateral progressive cataract in a one-year-old dog of a predisposed breed should be considered hereditary until proven otherwise.

C. It is inherited dominantly: one affected parent is enough

In the Staffordshire Bull Terrier and Boston Terrier the HSF4 mutation is autosomal recessive; carriers do not have cataracts. (In the Australian Shepherd another HSF4 variant acts dominantly with incomplete penetrance.)

D. It is most likely a hereditary cataract caused by the HSF4 mutation: there is a DNA test for the dog and its relatives, and it should not be bred

Correct. Staffordshire hereditary cataract (HSF4, autosomal recessive) appears in the first months or years and progresses to complete cataract. The test identifies affected dogs and carriers, and phacoemulsification can restore vision.

lightbulb Key takeaway

With a juvenile cataract, rule out diabetes, trauma, uveitis and nutrition, and think about the breed: hereditary cataracts occur in many (Staffordshire, Boston Terrier, Australian Shepherd, Husky, Labrador…). DNA tests and breeding eye examinations are the tools to reduce their frequency.

Which statement is correct?

Related questions