Phacolytic uveitis due to cataract in the diabetic dog
9-year-old Miniature Schnauzer, diabetic for 2 months, with bilateral cataracts that became complete within a few weeks. The eyes are now red, with mild flare, a darkened iris and intraocular pressure of 8 mmHg in both eyes.
Which statement about this condition is correct?
chevron_right Show answer and explanation
A. It is septic uveitis and requires systemic antibiotics
There is no infection: the inflammation is an immune reaction to lens proteins leaking through the intact capsule.
B. It needs no treatment because it resolves once blood glucose is controlled
Glycaemic control does not reverse the cataract or the uveitis. Without treatment, the risk of synechiae, secondary glaucoma and retinal detachment increases.
C. Atropine is the only treatment needed
Atropine relieves pain and reduces synechiae, but does not control the inflammation. It should also be used with caution in eyes at risk of glaucoma.
D. It is phacolytic uveitis, treated with topical anti-inflammatories; controlling it improves the prognosis of cataract surgery
Correct. Rapidly developing cataracts, such as diabetic ones, release lens proteins that cause uveitis. It is treated with topical corticosteroids or NSAIDs, and early referral for phacoemulsification assessment is advisable.
lightbulb Key takeaway
Distinguish phacolytic uveitis (intact capsule, mild to moderate inflammation, responds to topical treatment) from phacoclastic uveitis (capsule rupture from trauma or a cat scratch, severe inflammation usually requiring prompt lens removal). Treat uveitis before cataract surgery.
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Updated: October 31, 2026 · Educational content for veterinary professionals. It does not replace current clinical guidelines or the judgement of the attending veterinarian.